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CompTIA CS0-003 Exam Sample Questions


Question # 1

A security analyst reviews the following Arachni scan results for a web application that stores PII data: Which of the following should be remediated first?
A. SQL injection
B. RFI
C. XSS
D. Code injection


A. SQL injection

Explanation:

SQL injection should be remediated first, as it is a high-severity vulnerability that can allow an attacker to execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database server and access, modify, or delete sensitive data, including PII. According to the Arachni scan results, there are two instances of SQL injection and three instances of blind SQL injection (two timing attacks and one differential analysis) in the web application. These vulnerabilities indicate that the web application does not properly validate or sanitize the user input before passing it to the database server, and thus exposes the database to malicious queries12. SQL injection can have serious consequences for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data and the system, and can also lead to further attacks, such as privilege escalation, data exfiltration, or remote code execution34.

Therefore, SQL injection should be the highest priority for remediation, and the web application should implement input validation, parameterized queries, and least privilege principle to prevent SQL injection attacks5.

References:

Web application testing with Arachni | Infosec, How do I create a generated scan report for PDF in Arachni Web …, Command line user interface

• Arachni/arachni Wiki

• GitHub, SQL Injection - OWASP, Blind SQL Injection - OWASP, SQL Injection Attack: What is it, and how to prevent it., SQL Injection Cheat Sheet & Tutorial | Veracode




Question # 2

An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to?
A. PCI Security Standards Council
B. Local law enforcement
C. Federal law enforcement
D. Card issuer


D. Card issuer
Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official References: https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/




Question # 3

A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability. Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?
A. Log entry 1
B. Log entry 2
C. Log entry 3
D. Log entry 4


A. Log entry 1





Question # 4

A security analyst has identified a new malware file that has impacted the organization. The malware is polymorphic and has built-in conditional triggers that require a connection to the internet. The CPU has an idle process of at least 70%. Which of the following best describes how the security analyst can effectively review the malware without compromising the organization's network?
A. Utilize an RDP session on an unused workstation to evaluate the malware.
B. Disconnect and utilize an existing infected asset off the network.
C. Create a virtual host for testing on the security analyst workstation.
D. Subscribe to an online service to create a sandbox environment.


D. Subscribe to an online service to create a sandbox environment.

Explanation:

A sandbox environment is a safe and isolated way to analyze malware without affecting the organization’s network. An online service can provide a sandbox environment without requiring the security analyst to set up a virtual host or use an RDP session. Disconnecting and using an existing infected asset is risky and may not provide accurate results. References: Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples, Dynamic Analysis





Question # 5

An analyst reviews a recent government alert on new zero-day threats and finds the following CVE metrics for the most critical of the vulnerabilities:

CVSS: 3.1/AV:N/AC: L/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:H/E:U/RL:W/RC:R Which of the following represents the exploit code maturity of this critical vulnerability?

A. E:U
B. S:C
C. RC:R
D. AV:N
E. AC:L


A. E:U

Explanation:

The exploit code maturity of a vulnerability is indicated by the E metric in the CVSS temporal score. The value of U means that no exploit code is available or unknown1. The other options are not related to the exploit code maturity, but to other aspects of the vulnerability, such as attack vector, scope, availability, and complexity1.



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